1) Bicentenary celebrations of which Odisha rebellion against British rule was celebrated on 20th July, 2017?
a. Santhal
b. Paika
c. Revolt of 1857
d. Jat
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: Paika
Explanation: The President of India Shri Pranab Mukherjee inaugurated the “Bicentenary celebration of the heroic Paika Rebellion of Odisha, a valiant uprising of Paikas against the British rule” organised by the Ministry of Culture.
The Bi-Centenary of the Paika Bidroha of Odisha took place 40 years before the revolt of 1857, which was later termed as 1st War of Indian Independence against British Colonialism, a battle was fought under the leadership of Baxi Jagabandhu of Odisha.
Many scholars, researchers and historians have opined that the Paika Rebellion of 1817 was India’s first organized armed rebellion against British Raj.
The legend of the heroics of Buxi Jagabandhu continues to inspire the people of Odisha. It is time, this struggle and sacrifice by a generation of Odia people got its due place in the annals of history.
Paika Rebellion was not only the rebellion of Paikas, it was a National War waged by ordinary people at the grassroots level who resented the dispossession of their Sovereign of his rights and the consequential repressive measures that followed.
Along with Buxi Jagabandu respects were paid to other great warriors of Paika Bidroha who fought side by side.
This includes Dinabandhu Samantray Mohapatra, Dama Subudhi Manjaraj, Samanta Madhaba Chandra Routray (Dalbehera of Tapanga), Pindiki Bahubalendra, Krutibas Patsani and many more heroes of Paika Bidroha.
Paika Rebellion: Know More - Pre-dating what has been popularly regarded as the fist war of independence in 1857, the Paika Bidroha (Paika Rebellion) of 1817 in Odisha briefly shook the foundations of British rule in the eastern part of India.
- Paikas were essentially the peasant militias of the Gajapati rulers of Odisha who rendered military service to the king during times of war while taking up cultivation during times of peace.
- They unfurled the banner of rebellion against the British under the leadership of Baxi Jagandhu Bidyadhara as early as 1817 to throw off the British yoke.
- Rulers of Khurda were traditionally the custodians of Jagannath Temple and ruled as the deputy of Lord Jagannath on earth.
- They symbolised the political and cultural freedom of the people of Odisha. The British, having established their sway over Bengal Province and Madras Province to the north and south of Odisha, occupied it in 1803.
- The Gajapati King of Odisha Mukunda Deva-ll was a minor then and initial resistance by JaiRajguru, the custodian of Mukunda Deva-II, was put down brutally and Jai Rajguru was torn apart alive.
- A few years later, it was the Paikas under Baxi Jagabandhu, the hereditary chief of the militia army of the Gajapati King, who rose in rebellion, taking support of tribals and other sections of society.
- The rebellion started in March 1817 and spread quickly.
- Though Paikas played a larger role in the rebellion against the British, it was by nomeans a rebellion by a small group of people belonging to a particular class.
- The tribals of Ghumusar (part of present day Ganjam and Kandhmal Districts) and other sections of the population actively took part in it.
- In fact, the Paika Bidroha got the opportune moment to spread when 400 tribals of Ghumsar entered Khurda protesting against the British rule.
- The Paikas attacked British symbols of power, setting ablaze police stations, administrative offices and the treasury during their march towards Khurda, from where the British fled.
- The Paikas were supported by the rajas of Kanika, Kujang, Nayagarh and Ghumusar and zamindars, village heads and ordinary peasants.
- The rebellion quickly spread to Purl, Pipli Cuttack and other parts of the province.
- Though the Paika Bidroha enjoys a cult status in Odisha with children growing up with stories of the brave fight against the British, it has unfortunately received less attention at the national level than it should have got.
- The solar flare makes it quite improbable for Proxima Centauri b to host a life form as we know it.
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2) Which year was the second hottest in 137 years of modern record keeping on earth?
a. 2016
b. 2015
c. 2014
d. 2017
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: 2017
Explanation: The first half of this year was the second hottest - just behind 2016 - in 137 years of modern record-keeping on Earth, as per scientists.
The average temperature across global land and ocean surfaces was 0.91 degrees Celsius above the 20th century average of 13.5 degrees Celsius.
This was the second highest value for January-June in the 1880-2017 record, behind the record year of last year.
Last month was the third hottest June, according to the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) global temperature dataset record.
The June temperature across global land and ocean surfaces was 0.82 degrees Celsius above the 20th century average of 15.5 degrees Celsius.
This was the third highest value for June in the 138-year period of record, behind 2016 and 2015.
Last month marks the 41st consecutive June and the 390th consecutive month with temperatures at least nominally above the 20th century average.
The monthly analysis by scientists at NASA’s Goddard Institute for Space Studies (GISS) is assembled from publicly available data acquired by about 6,300 meteorological stations around the world, ship- and buoy-based instruments measuring sea surface temperature, and Antarctic research stations.
The modern global temperature record begins around 1880 because previous observations didn’t cover enough of the planet.
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3) What does IWAI stand for in the context of development and maintenance of national waterways?
a. Indian Waterways Authority Inland
b. Inland Waterways Authority of India
c. Internal Waterways Authority of India
d. Inland Waterways Association of India
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: Inland Waterways Authority of India
Explanation: The Union Cabinet gave its nod to Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) to raise Rs.660 crore in bonds for extra budgetary resources (EBRs) in 2017-18.
The proceeds from the bonds will be utilised by IWAI for development and maintenance of National Waterways (NWs) under National Waterways Act, 2016.
Moreover, the funds received will be used exclusively for capital expenditure to improve infrastructure funding.
The principal and interest in respect of the EBRs will be financed by the Union Government by making suitable budgetary provisions in the demand of the Union Ministry of Shipping.
The interest payment on the bonds will be on semi-annual basis and the principal on maturity. The whole exercise would be undertaken by IWAI through appointment of lead managers and coordination with SEBI.
Gross budgetary support from the Union Government and external financial support for funding development and maintenance of 106 new National Waterways under National Waterway Act, 2016, is grossly inadequate.
So far, the World Bank has sanctioned a loan of $ 375 million (around INR 2,421 crore) for Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP) along with other sources.
But still there is funding gap which may be bridged by raising bonds.
About Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) - IWAI is the statutory body in charge of the waterways in India.
- Its headquarters is located in Noida, UP.
- Its main function is to build the necessary infrastructure in the inland waterways, surveying the economic feasibility of new projects and also carrying out administration and regulation.
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4) LS passed the IIIT-PPP Bill to allow how many IIITs on PPP model to get statutory status and grant degrees?
a. 15
b. 14
c. 13
d. 12
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: 15
Explanation: The Lok Sabha passed the Indian Institute of Information Technology Public Private Partnership (IIIT-PPP) Bill, 2017 to allow 15 IIITs established on a PPP model to grant degrees and get statutory status.
The bill also seeks to grant institute of national importance status to IIITs on the lines of the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and National Institutes of Technology (NITs).
The Union Government had initiated the opening of 20 IIITs with private partnership of which 15 are already operational.
These engineering and technology schools were established at a cost of INR 128 crore each.
The centre had contributed 50% of the amount, states 35% and private partners remaining 15% (i.e. 50:35:15 ratio).
However, these institutes were not been eligible to grant degrees.
The bill define PPP as a partnership under a scheme of the centre for establishment of institutes through collaboration between the centre, the state government and industry partners such as individuals, trusts, companies or societies.
State government will identify at least one industry partner for collaboration to establish an institute and submit a proposal to the centre.
The centre will examine the proposal based on certain criteria. The centre may reject or accept the proposal with modifications.
Upon such acceptance, the centre will enter into a MoU with the concerned state government and industry partners to establish proposed institute.
The industry partner will have powers for co-creating programs as per the requirements of the industry; actively participating in the governance of the institutes; and funding and mentoring startups in the institutions.
Board of Governors will be the principal policy making and executive body of the institute. The Board of each institute will comprise up to 15 members including Chairman nominated on the recommendation of the centre.
Senate will be the principal academic body of each institute. It will specify the criteria and procedure for admission to courses of study; recommend to the Board, creation of teaching and other academic posts; and specify academic content of programmes and courses of study.
Coordination Forum will deliberate on matters of common interest to all the institutes. It will advise the centre to include or exclude an institution from the schedule of the Bill.
Each institute will maintain a fund consisting of funds from the government and other sources including grants, fees and donations.
Further, each institute will create corpus fund of the net income of the institute and donations for its long term sustainability.
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5) UIDAI has launched which app that permits Aadhaar card holders to carry aadhar details in their smartphones?
a. mAadhaar
b. eAadhaar
c. mobileAadhaar
d. onlineAadhaar
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: mAadhaar
Explanation: The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has launched the mAadhaar app, a digital tool that allows holders of Aadhaar numbers to carry their in their smartphones.
The app syncs all information available on your Aadhaar, such as demographic details, name, date of birth, gender, postal address and photograph, after you link your Aadhaar with the app.
Now that is a convenient way to carry Aadhaar everywhere, all the time.
The app also allows you to lock and unlock your biometric data–a feature that was earlier possible only through the UIDAI web portal.
For safety and security reasons, the mAadhaar app uses a two-layer authentication.
The app has a Google Authenticator-like one-time password generation tool within the app for this purpose.
The OTPs generated by the tool are read by the app automatically; there is no way to enter them manually.
The app allows you to update your profile using the app, and the change reflects in the app once they are approved.
The mAadhaar app APK file is already available for download on Google Play marketplace, and has been launched only for Android users only for now; however, it might be released for iOS soon as well.
However, the app is currently in beta stage, notes UIDAI in its announcement tweet, and some of the features will be made available post future updates.
Notably, the app allows users to lock or unlock biometrics data.
Once a resident enables Biometric Locking system their biometric remains locked till the Aadhaar Holder chose to either Unlock it (which is temporary) or Disable the Locking system.
Interestingly, the mAadhaar app also comes with "Time-based One-Time Password (TOTP)" feature that can be used instead of SMS-based OTP.
With the mAadhaar app, users will be able to get the updated view of the profile upon completion of the update request and they will even be able to share QR code and password protected eKYC data to retrieve accurate demographic information from it instead of manual entry.
To recall, a new amendment to the tax proposals in the Finance Bill for 2017-18 made it mandatory from July 1 for anyone who has a PAN card to provide their Aadhaar number to the principal director general of income tax (systems) or DGIT (systems).
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6) When is Nelson Mandela day celebrated?
a. 16th July
b. 15th July
c. 17th July
d. 18th July
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: 18th July
Explanation: Every year on 18 July, the day Nelson Mandela was born the UN asks individuals around the world to mark Nelson Mandela International Day (18 July).
This day is celebrated by making a difference in their communities.
Everyone has the ability and the responsibility to change the world for the better, and Mandela Day is an occasion for everyone to take action and inspire change.
In November 2009, the UN General Assembly declared 18 July “Nelson Mandela International Day” in recognition of the former South African President’s contribution to the culture of peace and freedom
Nelson Mandela: Know More - Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela was a South African anti-apartheid revolutionary, politician, and philanthropist, who served as President of South Africa from 1994 to 1999.
- Born: 18 July 1918, Mvezo, South Africa
- Died: 5 December 2013, Houghton Estate, City of Johannesburg Metropolitan Municipality, South Africa
- Awards: Nobel Peace Prize, Bharat Ratna
- Movies and TV shows: Mandela: Long Walk to Freedom, Death of Apartheid, Dear Mandela, Darling! The Pieter-Dirk Uys Story
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7) Union Environment ministry approved projects for climate change in which states?
a. Rajasthan
b. Gujarat
c. Manipur
d. Both a and b
e. All the above
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: Both a and b
Explanation: The Union Environment Ministry approved three projects for climate change adaptation in three states viz. Rajasthan, Gujarat and Sikkim for funding under the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC).
In this regard, the National Steering Committee on Climate Change (NSCCC) headed by Environment Secretary has approved the Detailed Project Reports (DPRs) submitted by these three state governments.
The investment aims to address the issue of water security which are directly identified as climate resilience building interventions under the SAPCC.
It also aims to bolster water security in villages under the Mukhya Mantri Jal Swavlamban Abhiyan.
It aims to enhance the adaptive capacity of villages by making them self-reliant in terms of water requirement.
The project seeks enhance the adaptive capacity of natural resource dependent communities to climate change in targeted villages of Kachchh district.
NAFCC: Know More - NAFCC is a flagship Scheme of Union Government launched in 2015 to provide 100% central grant to the State Governments for implementing climate change adaptation projects.
- The Scheme has been designed to fulfill the objectives of National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) and operationalize the State Action Plans on Climate Change (SAPCCs).
- The objective of the fund is to assist states/UTs that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change in meeting the cost of adaptation.
- The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE) responsible for implementation of adaptation projects under the NAFCC.
- Under this scheme, Union Government encourages States to come up with innovative and scalable projects to develop resilience against climate change and mainstream it in the planning processes.
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8) Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare launched which quality mark logo at New Delhi?
a. National Dairy Development Board
b. National Dairy Development Authority
c. National Dairy Development Scheme
d. National Dairy Development Programme
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: National Dairy Development Board
Explanation: Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Minister, Shri Radha Mohan Singh on July 20, 2017 launched National Dairy Development Board “NDDB’s” Quality Mark “Logo” at Krishi Bhawan, New Delhi.
The Agriculture Minister also presented certificates to 14 selected manufacturing units for adopting food safety and quality management systems and adhering to Quality Mark parameters.
NDDB Quality Mark “Logo” is being launched as an umbrella brand identity.
This “Logo” signifies safe and quality milk and milk products from dairy cooperatives.
This reinforces the consumers’ recognition that the Quality Mark is synonymous with good quality.
The Minister said that NDDB’s Quality Mark will provide dairy cooperatives and producer institutions the much-needed brand identity and a competitive edge.
This will also contribute to building consumer confidence in dairy cooperative brands.
It is aimed at bringing about process improvement in the entire value chain from producer to the consumers to ensure availability of quality milk and milk products.
This initiative does not propose any new/additional system for Food Safety and Quality Management but lays down the processes required for ensuring quality and safety.
An eleven member Management Committee will oversee the activities of the Quality Mark. It has members from the DADF and Managing Directors of four Federations representing the regions.
The Management Committee also has a representative of FSSAI and two experts in dairying.
Interested Federations/Cooperative dairies/Educational institutions/Govt. dairy units may apply for the Quality Mark.
Only dairy units that adopt food safety and quality management systems for milk and milk products and adhere to parameters given the guidelines of Quality Mark are eligible.
The Agriculture Minister said that award of Quality Mark shall be valid for three years subject to maintenance of quality, food safety standards and compliance with the terms and conditions of the agreement.
Approval for award of Quality Mark shall be valid for three years, surveillance audit for checking compliance with the norms of the quality mark shall be held once every year.
Following the roll out of the initiative in January 2016, the NDDB has received 55 applications from the cooperatives across the country.
Of these, 14 units have successfully cleared the two stage assessment process.
The remaining 31 dairies were informed about the areas of improvement. They have been provided 6-9 months for implementing the corrective measures.
Initiative of NDDB will facilitate and strengthen the efforts of FSSAI.
It will also create requisite awareness among various dairy units across the country for adopting the quality measures detailed the guideline document.
Operational norms of participating dairy units will be monitored and validated. The assessment is a two-step process involving pre-assessment and a final assessment.
The pre-assessment largely covers the village level procurement and processing infrastructure availability, training manpower and the retail sales.
Only those units that score over 70% in the preliminary assessment are considered for final assessment which is done by a team of three experts of which one is an external expert.
The final assessment is made for the evaluation of critical and major parameters that influence the quality of the processed milk and milk products.
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9) Which is the sun’s closest star neighbour?
a. Proxima Centuari
b. Proxima Alpha
c. Proxima Astrosat
d. Andromeda
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: Proxima Centuari
Explanation: The Sun’s closest star neighbour, Proxima Centauri, a cool dwarf star situated a little over four light years away, may not be inclined to harbour habitable planets, if its temperament is anything to go by.
AstroSat, along with other space and earth-based observatories, has detected a powerful solar flare sent out by this star.
At an energy of 10-raised-to-30 ergs, this explosion is about 100 times a typical flare.
If such a flare occurs in our Sun, it might have a devastating effect on power grids, interrupt broadcasts and electricity, affect electronic instruments, and cause excess UV radiation in space.
On 31 May 2017, three space-based observatories, the Astrosat, Chandra and Hubble Space Telescope, and the ground-based High Accuracy Radial velocity Planet Searcher (HARPS) observatory, participated in a multi-wavelength simultaneous observation campaign.
The mission teams of all satellites agreed to point to this star and spend a whole day watching this particular star.
Also, AstroSat is sensitive enough to easily catch a flare from a star that is so close to us, if it happens during the night time of the satellite and if the telescope is pointed towards this star, as was the case here.
Last year’s discovery of Proxima Centauri b - a planet orbiting Proxima Centauri and, more importantly, lying in its habitable ‘Goldilocks’ zone - had set everyone wondering if it could host life.
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10) Which space mission celebrated its 40th anniversary in July 2017?
a. Voyager
b. Challenger
c. MOM
d. Chandrayaan
Answer
Explanation
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ANSWER: Voyager
Explanation: Voyagers 1 and 2 were launched in 1977 to take advantage of a favourable alignment of Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune, and are now exploring interstellar space.
Voyager 1 and 2 have explored all the giant planets of our outer solar system, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune; 48 of their moons; and the unique system of rings and magnetic fields those planets possess.
By the anniversary Voyager 1 will have traveled more than 12 billion miles and Voyager 2 more than 10 billion, with both nuclear-powered spacecraft continuing to send back data.
Both spacecraft, the Voyager 1 as well as the Voyager 2, have enough power left to last until 2025, after which communication will be lost.
They have been breaking records for almost two decades, the first on Feb 17, 1998, when Voyager 1 passed NASA’s Pioneer 10 probe to become the farthest man-made object.
According to NASA, the Voyagers are the first to pass through the heliosheath, which is thought to exist somewhere from eight to 14 billion miles from the Sun.
Voyager 1 entered interstellar space on Aug 25, 2012, a first for a spacecraft, and Voyager 2 is en route to do so too.
The Voyagers have enough electrical power and thruster fuel to operate at least until 2020, according to NASA.
Eventually, they will pass other stars.
In about 40,000 years, Voyager 1 will drift within 1.6 light-years (9.3 trillion miles) of AC+79 3888, a star in the constellation of Camelopardalis, which is heading toward the constellation Ophiuchus.
United States public broadcaster PBS plans to celebrate the anniversary with a documentary.
Voyagers 1 and 2 were launched in 1977 to take advantage of a favourable alignment of Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune, and are now exploring interstellar space
While the Voyager 2 was launched on Aug 20, 1977, Voyager 1 was launched Sep 5, 1977.
Both spacecrafts are equipped with spectrometers, radiometers and cameras, and carry 30cm gold plated copper records featuring sounds and images of Earth.
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